Psalm 106:31 says Phinehas' deed "was accounted to him for righteousness To all generations forevermore." Does this mean he was justified (i.e. counted righteous in God's sight) on the basis on his deed? How does this compare to Abraham who "believed in the LORD, and He accounted it to him for righteousness" in Genesis 15:6? ATP Book Series: https://tinyurl.com/53h74v3e Support ATP: https://tinyurl.com/yadhlqfl